You misunderstood my usage of the word "deficient". I didn't use it to indicate that someone is "deficient" because they are different from me. I meant it as a reference to sexual dysfunctions. Like it or not, but they are officially recognized as sexual health problems both in the DSM-IV and the ICD-10. We can discuss if the DSM-IV and the ICD-10 are reductionist but that would be a different thing.
My posts are based on what I have already stated - i.e. "Having sexual needs is manifested as sexual desire which is considered to be a part of a healthy sexual functioning. Hypoactive sexual desire disorder is an officially recognized sexual dysfunction - both the DSM-IV and the ICD-10 see this condition as problematic. A person with healthy sex drive needs sexual release - otherwise they experience sexual frustration which is detrimental to one's psychological health." Of course, one can masturbate to have sexual relief. But there is still the frustration stemming from the problem to get a partner or being sexually rejected by a partner on a regular basis and this frustration goes hand in hand with unfulfilled sexual needs. In addition, the need for sexual relief is still sexual need regardless of the way how you achieve the relief.
No, I don't misunderstand you at all actually. Being told I have a sexual dysfunction based on no actual evidence is insulting to me. Being told that I am "deficient" means I am being told that I am "not good enough": that is what that word means. That is also insulting to me. You presume I am "deficient" not because you have any evidence to suggest that I am so, but because you presume anyone who does not think like you must have a disorder. It's short-minded of you. And yes, the efficacy of the diagnostic manuals is absolutely relevant here; it is not a "different thing".
Also, I think deciding that "sexual needs" covers any form of sexual relief in including masturbation is a massive leap, and completely changes the meaning of the question.
If you call this massive leap, I suppose it won't be difficult for you to admit that you massively misunderstood the original question. Sexual needs are generally considered to be the needs for sexual relief and obviously, that is also what the OP meant. It is not accurate to understand the term "sexual needs" as needs for one and only form of sexual relief - i.e. sex (oh yeah, between husband and wife in missionary position in bed and complete darkness after 10pm when kids are asleep - just joking, lol). Seriously, I think it is inaccurate to reduce "sexual needs" to "needs for sex" for many reasons - one of them may be that sexual deviants (or at least a lot of them) do have sexual needs - although they crave to satisfy them by deviant means or alternatively by masturbation to deviant fantasies if they can't have precisely what they want most. The same goes with ordinary people.
Sexual needs?
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You misunderstood my usage of the word "deficient". I didn't use it to indicate that someone is "deficient" because they are different from me. I meant it as a reference to sexual dysfunctions. Like it or not, but they are officially recognized as sexual health problems both in the DSM-IV and the ICD-10. We can discuss if the DSM-IV and the ICD-10 are reductionist but that would be a different thing.
My posts are based on what I have already stated - i.e. "Having sexual needs is manifested as sexual desire which is considered to be a part of a healthy sexual functioning. Hypoactive sexual desire disorder is an officially recognized sexual dysfunction - both the DSM-IV and the ICD-10 see this condition as problematic. A person with healthy sex drive needs sexual release - otherwise they experience sexual frustration which is detrimental to one's psychological health." Of course, one can masturbate to have sexual relief. But there is still the frustration stemming from the problem to get a partner or being sexually rejected by a partner on a regular basis and this frustration goes hand in hand with unfulfilled sexual needs. In addition, the need for sexual relief is still sexual need regardless of the way how you achieve the relief.
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dom180
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No, I don't misunderstand you at all actually. Being told I have a sexual dysfunction based on no actual evidence is insulting to me. Being told that I am "deficient" means I am being told that I am "not good enough": that is what that word means. That is also insulting to me. You presume I am "deficient" not because you have any evidence to suggest that I am so, but because you presume anyone who does not think like you must have a disorder. It's short-minded of you. And yes, the efficacy of the diagnostic manuals is absolutely relevant here; it is not a "different thing".
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dom180
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Also, I think deciding that "sexual needs" covers any form of sexual relief in including masturbation is a massive leap, and completely changes the meaning of the question.
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Naamah
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If you call this massive leap, I suppose it won't be difficult for you to admit that you massively misunderstood the original question. Sexual needs are generally considered to be the needs for sexual relief and obviously, that is also what the OP meant. It is not accurate to understand the term "sexual needs" as needs for one and only form of sexual relief - i.e. sex (oh yeah, between husband and wife in missionary position in bed and complete darkness after 10pm when kids are asleep - just joking, lol). Seriously, I think it is inaccurate to reduce "sexual needs" to "needs for sex" for many reasons - one of them may be that sexual deviants (or at least a lot of them) do have sexual needs - although they crave to satisfy them by deviant means or alternatively by masturbation to deviant fantasies if they can't have precisely what they want most. The same goes with ordinary people.