Your logical fallacy is: Burden of proof. you’re the one who claimed that asexuality isn’t real, although you did admit that is only your opinion and not a fact.
Fact: some people do not experience sexual attraction towards either sex. It has been named “Asexuality”.
Yes good point, I never claimed it as a fact. And I know this is a matter that can not be definitively proven one way or another. I believe it to be true but it is not a fact, and I have nothing against you for thinking otherwise. Its called a respectful disagreement ona theory. There is no conctere facts that can prove it either way.
I mean thats like saying lesbians don't exsist becuase you disagree with it. News flash, its thier chioce not yours. If they say they are into the same sex you don't get to say "well I don't belive. You must be fictional"!
Well actually, that is completely different! Physical signs of arousal can be measured in homosexuals when same sex stimuli are present. It can be proven, asexuality can not.
I get a feeling that this guy is one of those who, when finding out that a girl he likes is a lesbian (or asexual for that matter), will think he can “convert” her.
The proof is that Asexuality exists though. You’re assuming they’re lying but have no reasoning behind that, other than you can’t imagine someone having different feelings than your own
Well actually the reason I belive it to be true is because of hormonal and evolutionary reasons. What purpose does an organism have with zero sex drive? What is the point of the sexual organs, functions and hormones? To me it looks like all people are designed to be sexual beings. And evolution wise, It makes no sense for a part of a species to have zero sex drive. And If asexual humans exist, they would be about the only species where this is seen. I personally doubt it, but like I said, it can not be proven either way.
I think it is easier and more conciveable for a persons sex drive to be for different genders, than for it ti not be present at all. It is still the same basic hormones that fuel a gay sex drive and a straight sex drive. But as long as sex hormones are present, which they are in every single person, they cannot have no feelings at all. In my opinion of course! Also people weren't gay as much historically, at least to our knowledge, so the evolutionary impact would have been minimal.
Is it normal to think "asexuality" is totally not a thing?
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What facts? I have yet to see any facts, although I do appreciate the political jargon. What makes makes you belive that asexuality is a "fact"?
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mauzi
4 years ago
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What political jargon?
Your logical fallacy is: Burden of proof. you’re the one who claimed that asexuality isn’t real, although you did admit that is only your opinion and not a fact.
Fact: some people do not experience sexual attraction towards either sex. It has been named “Asexuality”.
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Anonymous Post Author
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Yes good point, I never claimed it as a fact. And I know this is a matter that can not be definitively proven one way or another. I believe it to be true but it is not a fact, and I have nothing against you for thinking otherwise. Its called a respectful disagreement ona theory. There is no conctere facts that can prove it either way.
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NoLifer
4 years ago
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mauzi
4 years ago
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I mean thats like saying lesbians don't exsist becuase you disagree with it. News flash, its thier chioce not yours. If they say they are into the same sex you don't get to say "well I don't belive. You must be fictional"!
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Anonymous Post Author
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mauzi
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Well actually, that is completely different! Physical signs of arousal can be measured in homosexuals when same sex stimuli are present. It can be proven, asexuality can not.
I get a feeling that this guy is one of those who, when finding out that a girl he likes is a lesbian (or asexual for that matter), will think he can “convert” her.
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Anonymous Post Author
4 years ago
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WTF! Can we stay on topic please?
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mauzi
4 years ago
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I did. You chose to reply to this diversion instead
The proof is that Asexuality exists though. You’re assuming they’re lying but have no reasoning behind that, other than you can’t imagine someone having different feelings than your own
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Well actually the reason I belive it to be true is because of hormonal and evolutionary reasons. What purpose does an organism have with zero sex drive? What is the point of the sexual organs, functions and hormones? To me it looks like all people are designed to be sexual beings. And evolution wise, It makes no sense for a part of a species to have zero sex drive. And If asexual humans exist, they would be about the only species where this is seen. I personally doubt it, but like I said, it can not be proven either way.
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Same argument can be made for gays too, being attracted to the same sex serves no biological purpose, doesn’t meant they don’t exist
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I think it is easier and more conciveable for a persons sex drive to be for different genders, than for it ti not be present at all. It is still the same basic hormones that fuel a gay sex drive and a straight sex drive. But as long as sex hormones are present, which they are in every single person, they cannot have no feelings at all. In my opinion of course! Also people weren't gay as much historically, at least to our knowledge, so the evolutionary impact would have been minimal.